[Mar 01, 2023] NCLEX-RN Free Exam Questions with Quality Guaranteed
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You can learn about the Certification Worth of the NCLEX-RN Exam.
The NCLEX exam is considered as a valuable credential in the nursing field. It indicates that you have met the minimum requirements to become a licensed nurse in the United States. The certification is also accepted as an entry-level position in many organizations, such as the Veterans Administration. NCLEX-RN Dumps is the most trusted and reliable for NCLEX-RN Exam preparation.
- There are three levels of certification that you can achieve after completing the NCLEX-RN exam:
- Master's of Science in Nursing (MSN)
- Certified Nurse (RN)
- Doctorate of Nursing Practice (DNP)
It is important to prepare for the exam as soon as possible after you graduate from nursing school.
The best way to prepare for the NCLEX-RN exam is to start studying two years before you expect to take the exam. This way, you will have time to build a solid foundation of knowledge before you start preparing for the exam.
It is important to read the course syllabus thoroughly and complete all of the course assignments. This will help you become familiar with the course content and how you should approach the exam questions.
Find out about the path of the NCLEX-RN exam.
The following is the certification path for the NCLEX-RN exam. This is also known as the passing pathway. There are several different certification levels in the NCLEX-RN exam.
These include:
- Registered Nurse (RN)
- Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
- PhD in Nursing (PhD)
- Master's of Science in Nursing (MSN)
NEW QUESTION 329
Plans for the care of a client with an ulcer caused by emotional problems need to take into consideration that:
- A. The disorder is a threat to his physical well-being
- B. His priority needs are limited to medical management
- C. There is no real psychological basis for his illness
- D. He is unable to participate in planning his care
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) There may be a medical emergency that takes top priority; however, the basis of the problem is emotional. (B) The problem is a physical manifestation of an emotional conflict. (C) The bleeding ulcer can be life threatening. (D) For lifestyle change to occur, the client must participate in the planning of his care so that he is committed to changes that will have positive results.
NEW QUESTION 330
A 48-year-old male client is hospitalized with mild ascites, bruising, and jaundice. He has a 20-year history of alcohol abuse. The client is diagnosed with cirrhosis. His serum ammonia level is high, indicating hepatic encephalopathy. He has esophageal varices. Which of the following may cause the varices to rupture?
- A. Walking briskly
- B. Ingestion of antacids
- C. Ingestion of barbiturates
- D. Lifting heavy objects
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Lifting heavy objects will increase intrathoracic pressure, thus placing the client at risk for rupturing esophageal varices. (B, C, D) This activity will not cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure.
NEW QUESTION 331
When evaluating a client with symptoms of shock, it is important for the nurse to differentiate between neurogenic and hypovolemic shock. The symptoms of neurogenic shock differ from hypovolemic shock in that:
- A. In neurogenic shock, there is delayed capillary refill
- B. In neurogenic shock, the skin is warm and dry
- C. In hypovolemic shock, capillary refill is less than 2 seconds
- D. In hypovolemic shock, there is a bradycardia
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Neurogenic shock is caused by injury to the cervical region, which leads to loss of sympathetic control. This loss leads to vasodilation of the vascular beds, bradycardia resulting from the lack of sympathetic balance to parasympathetic stimuli from the vagus nerve, and the loss of the ability to sweat below the level of injury. In neurogenic shock, the client is hypotensive but bradycardiac with warm, dry skin. (B) In hypovolemic shock, the client ishypotensive and tachycardiac with cool skin. (C) In hypovolemic shock, the capillary refill would be>5 seconds. (D) In neurogenic shock, there is no capillary delay, the vascular beds are dilated, and peripheral flow is good.
NEW QUESTION 332
A client has returned to the unit following a left femoral popliteal bypass graft. Six hours later, his dorsalis pedis pulse cannot be palpated, and his foot is cool and dusky. The nurse should:
- A. Assure the client that his foot is fine
- B. Reposition and reassess the foot
- C. Continue to monitor the foot
- D. Notify the physician immediately
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The client is losing blood supply to his left foot. Continuing to monitor the foot will not help restore the blood supply to the foot. (B) The physician should be notified immediately because the client is losing blood supply to his left foot and is in danger of losing the foot and/or leg. (C) The presenting symptoms are of an emergency nature and require immediate intervention. (D) This action would be giving the client false assurance.
NEW QUESTION 333
A 28-year-old multigravida has class II heart disease. At her prenatal visit at 34 weeks' gestation, all of the following observations are made. Which would require intervention?
- A. Subjective data: shortness of breath after showering
- B. Weight gain of 2 kg in 4 weeks
- C. Ankle edema reported present in late afternoon and evenings
- D. Blood pressure of 128/78
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This is not an excessive weight gain indicative of fluid retention. (B) The blood pressure is within normal range. (C) Showering should not cause shortness of breath. This could be a sign ofcardiac decompensation. (D) Dependent ankle edema is normal late in the day among pregnant women. Progressive edema would be a dangerous development.
NEW QUESTION 334
A newborn infant is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following would the nurse recognize as the earliest clinical sign of respiratory distress?
- A. Sternal and subcostal retractions
- B. Increased respirations
- C. Decreased respirations
- D. Cyanosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Cyanosis is a late clinical sign of respiratory distress. (B) Rapid respirations are normal in a newborn.
(C) The newborn has to exert an extra effort for ventilation, which is accomplished by using the accessory muscles of ventilation. The diaphragm and abdominal muscles are immature and weak in the newborn. (D) Decreased respirations are a late clinical sign. In the newborn, decreased respirations precede respiratory failure.
NEW QUESTION 335
A client was not using his seat belt when involved in a car accident. He fractured ribs 5, 6, and 7 on the left and developed a left pneumothorax. Assessment findings include:
- A. Rhonchi and frothy sputum
- B. Decreased breath sounds on the left and chest pain with movement
- C. Wheezing and dry cough
- D. Crackles and paradoxical chest wall movement
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Crackles are caused by air moving through moisture in the small airways and occur with pulmonary edema.
Paradoxical chest wall movement occurs with flail chest when a segment of the thorax moves outward on inspiration and inward on expiration. (B) Decreased breath sounds occur when a lung is collapsed or partially collapsed. Chest pain with movement occurs with rib fractures. (C) Rhonchi are caused by air moving through large fluid-filled airways. Frothy sputum may occur with pulmonary edema. (D) Wheezing is caused by fluid in large airways already narrowed by mucus or bronchospasm. Dry cough could indicate a cardiac problem.
NEW QUESTION 336
A newborn is admitted to the newborn nursery with tremors, apnea periods, and poor sucking reflex. The nurse should suspect:
- A. Central nervous system damage
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. These are normal newborn responses to extrauterine life
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Central nervous system damage presents as seizures, decreased arousal, and absence of newborn reflexes.
(B) In a diabetic mother, the infant is exposed to high serum glucose. The fetal pancreas produces large amounts of insulin, which causes hypoglycemia after birth. (C) Hypoglycemia is a common newborn problem.
Increased insulin production causes hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. (D) These are not normal adaptive behaviors to extrauterine life.
NEW QUESTION 337
A client has been in labor for 10 hours. Her contractions have become hypoactive and slowed in duration. The fetus is at 0 station, cervix is dilated 8 cm and effaced 90%. The physician orders an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion to be started at once. The RN begins the oxytocin infusion. It is important that the RN discontinue the infusion if which one of the following occur?
- A. The client's contractions are <2 minutes apart.
- B. The uterus relaxes between contractions.
- C. Duration of the contractions are 60 seconds.
- D. The client complains that she is tired.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) It is very important that there is a resting phase or relaxation period between the contractions. During this period, the uterus, placenta, and umbilical vessels re-establish blood flow. No resting phase between contractions can lead to fetal bradycardia, fetal hypoxia, and acidosis. It can also result in a tetanic contraction, which can cause uterine rupture. (B) The goal of the oxytocin infusion is to help establish a contraction pattern lasting 45-60 seconds occurring every 2 minutes and a uterine tonus of 60-70 mm Hg. (C) This choice is correct. The uterus has time to recover from the contraction. (D) The client's tiring is no indication to stop the infusion. She will be tired even without the infusion.
NEW QUESTION 338
A client with severe PIH receiving MgSO4 is placed in a quiet, darkened room. The nurse bases this action on the following understanding:
- A. The client is restless.
- B. External stimuli are annoying to the client with PIH.
- C. Noise or bright lights may precipitate a convulsion.
- D. The elevated blood pressure causes photophobia.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A)
The client may be anxious and hyperresponsive to stimuli but not necessarily restless.
(B)
This is not a physiological response to an elevated blood pressure in PIH. (C) The nurse must know the nursing measures that decrease the potential for convulsions. A quiet, darkened room decreases stimuli and promotes rest. (D) External stimuli might induce a convulsion but are not annoying to the client with PIH.
NEW QUESTION 339
A client was admitted with rib fractures and a pneumothorax, which were sustained as a result of a motor vehicle accident. A chest tube was placed on the left side to reinflate his lung, and he was transferred to a client unit. Twenty-four hours after admission he continues to have bloody sputum, develops increasing hypoxemia, and his chest x-ray shows patchy infiltrates. The nurse analyzes these symptoms as being consistent with:
- A. Pulmonary contusions
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Pulmonary edema
- D. Tension pneumothorax
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Pneumonia may be reflected by patchy infiltrates. In addition, fever, an increasing white blood cell count, and copious sputum production would be present. (B) Blunt chest traumacauses a bruising process in which interstitial and alveolar edema and hemorrhage occur. This is manifest by gradual deterioration over 24 hours of arterial blood gases and the continued production of bloody sputum. Patchy infiltrates are evident on chest xray 24 hours postinjury. (C) Pulmonary edema usually results from left heart failure. It is manifest by pink, frothy sputum; increasing dyspnea; tachycardia; and crackles on auscultation. (D) Tension pneumothorax is a potential complication for someone with rib fractures and a chest tube. It is manifest by diminished breath sounds on the affected side, rapidly deteriorating arterial blood gases in the presence of an open airway, and shock that is unexplained by other injuries.
NEW QUESTION 340
A complication for which the nurse should be alert following a liver biopsy is:
- A. Jaundice
- B. Ascites
- C. Shock
- D. Hepatic coma
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Hepatic coma may occur in liver disease due to the increased NH3levels, not due to liver biopsy. (B) Jaundice may occur due to increased bilirubin levels, not due to liver biopsy. (C) Ascites would occur due to portal hypertension, not due to liver biopsy. (D) Hemorrhage and shock are the most likely complications after liver biopsy because of already existing bleeding tendencies in the vascular makeup of the liver.
NEW QUESTION 341
A female client admitted to the labor and delivery unit thinks her bag of water "broke" approximately 2 hours ago. She is having mild contractions 5 minutes apart. The most immediate nursing intervention would be to:
- A. Notify the physician.
- B. Place the nitrazine test paper at the cervical os and note the color change.
- C. Assess the FHR.
- D. Note the color and amount of fluid on her clothes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Amniotic fluid is generally pale and straw colored. Meconium- stained amniotic fluid would indicate a previous hypoxic episode. This intervention, though appropriate, is not the immediate priority. (B) With rupture of the membranes, the umbilical cord may prolapse if the presenting part does not fill the pelvis.
Assessing FHR ascertains fetal well-being. (C) More information regarding fetal status and assessing for membrane rupture is needed prior to contacting the physician. (D) Nitrazine test paper differentiates amniotic fluid from urine. Amniotic fluid is normally alkaline in contrast to urine, which is acidic. This intervention, though appropriate, is not the immediate priority.
NEW QUESTION 342
The nurse should facilitate bonding during the postpartum period. What should the nurse expect to observe in the taking-hold phase?
- A. Mother lightly touches infant.
- B. Mother calls infant by name.
- C. Mother is concerned about her recovery.
- D. Mother is concerned about her weight gain.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This observation can be made during the taking-in phase when the mother's needs are more important. (B) This observation can be made during the taking-hold phase when the mother is actively involved with herself and the infant. (C, D) This observation can be made during the taking-in phase.
NEW QUESTION 343
The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is:
- A. To maintain nutritional requirements
- B. To establish trust with the child
- C. To maintain communication with the family
- D. To promote involvement in school activities
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) The priority nursing goal when working with an autistic child is establishing a trusting relationship. (B) Maintaining a relationship with the family is important but having the trust of the child is a priority. (C) To promote involvement in school activities is inappropriate for a child who is autistic. (D) Maintaining nutritional requirements is not the primary problem of the autistic child.
NEW QUESTION 344
A 50-year-old depressed client has recently lost his job. He has been reluctant to leave his hospital room.
Nursing care would include:
- A. Providing sensory stimulation
- B. Encouraging the client to discuss why he is so sad
- C. Forcing the client to attend all unit activities
- D. Monitoring elimination patterns
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The client should be encouraged to attend the unit activities. The nurse and client should choose a few activities for the client to attend that will be positive experiences for him. (B) The nurse should encourage the client to discuss his feelings and to begin to deal with the depression. (C) Depressed persons often have little appetite and poor fluid intake. Constipation is common. (D) A calm, consistent level of stimuli is most effective. Sensory deprivation and overstimulation should be avoided.
NEW QUESTION 345
During an examination, the nurse notes that an infant has diaper rash on the convex surfaces of his buttocks, inner thighs, and scrotum. Which of the following nursing interventions will be most effective in resolving the condition?
- A. Coating the inflamed areas with zinc oxide
- B. Using talcum powder on the inflamed areas to promote drying
- C. Cleaning the inflamed area thoroughly with disposable wet "wipes" at each diaper change
- D. Removing the diaper entirely for extended periods of time
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Zinc oxide is not usually applied to inflamed areas because it contributes to sweat retention. (B) Talcum powder is of questionable benefit and poses a hazard of accidental inhalation. (C) Removing the diaper and exposing the area to air and light facilitate drying and healing. (D) Infants may be sensitive to one or more agents in the wet "wipes." It is better to simply clean with a wet cloth.
NEW QUESTION 346
During his hospitalization, a 3-year-old child has become unusually aggressive in his play activities. His parents report this change in behavior to the primary nurse. How could the nurse explain the child's change in behavior?
- A. Deep-seated feelings of hostility
- B. A lack of interest in socializing
- C. Usual behavior for this child
- D. A coping response
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Unusually aggressive behavior does not indicate a deepseated problem. (B) A lack of social interest results in poor participation in play activities with peers. Aggression would not be an expected behavior.
(C) The aggressive behavior was newly developed and not a routine behavior. (D) Play provides the child with opportunities for coping and adaptation. Aggression during the play activities would indicate a coping response.
NEW QUESTION 347
The nurse is teaching a mother care of her child's spica cast. The mother states that he complains of itching under the edge of the cast. One nonpharmacological technique the nurse might suggest would be:
- A. "Blowing air under the cast using a hair dryer on cool setting often relieves itching."
- B. "Guide a towel under and through the cast and move it back and forth to relieve the itch."
- C. "Gently thump on cast to dislodge dried skin that causes the itching."
- D. "Slide a ruler under the cast and scratch the area."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set B
Explanation:
(A) Cool air will often relieve pruritus without damaging the cast or irritating the skin. (B) The nurse should never force anything under the cast, because the cast may become damaged and skin breakdown may occur.
(C) Forcing an object under the cast could lead to cast damage and skin breakdown. The object may become lodged under the cast necessitating cast removal. (D) This technique does not dislodge skin cells. It could damage the cast and cause skin breakdown.
NEW QUESTION 348
A 32-year-old male client is a marketing representative. His job requires him to have a tremendous amount of energy during the day. He frequently uses cocaine to sustain his energy level. Lately he has increased his use of cocaine and even experimented with crack cocaine. Realizing he can no longer continue this destructive behavior, he is seeking treatment for cocaine addiction. In planning nursing care for the client's inpatient stay, which expected outcome is most appropriate?
- A. He will attend four consecutive group educational sessions on substance abuse.
- B. He will be able to deal with his feelings through participation in group therapy sessions.
- C. He will name activities that he would most likely be involved in posttreatment.
- D. He will meet with his family in counseling sessions and discuss his feelings.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This expected outcome is specific as related to attendance, but not specific as related to outcome criteria.
(B) Stating activities does not guarantee involvement. (C) This goal may help the recovery process, but postcounseling behavior is not addressed. (D) This statement best describes the expected outcome. The client will be attending group therapy sessions and through them he will deal with his feelings.
NEW QUESTION 349
A female client was employed as a client care technician in a hemodialysis unit. She recently began to experience extreme fatigue, being able to sleep for 16-20 hours at a time. She also noted that her urine was tea colored, which she rationalized was a result of the vitamins she began taking to alleviate fatigue.
She was diagnosed with hepatitis B After a brief hospital stay, she is discharged to her parent's home. Her mother asks the nurse if any precautions are necessary to prevent transmission to the client's family. The nurse explains necessary precautions, which include:
- A. Laundering clothes separately in cold water with a chloride solution
- B. Separate bathroom facilities if possible; if not, then cleansing daily of the facilities with a chloride solution
- C. Isolation of the client from the remainder of the family
- D. No necessary precautions because she is beyond the contagious phase
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Isolation is not necessary, even in the acute phase. (B) Separate bathroom facilities are recommended.
If unavailable, daily cleansing with a chloride solution is recommended. (C) Precautions continue to be necessary while the client is in the active phase of hepatitis. (D) Clothes are to be laundered separately in hot water with a chloride solution.
NEW QUESTION 350
The healthcare team determines that an elderly client has had progressive changes in memory over the last 2 years that have interfered with her personal, social, or occupational functioning. Her memory, learning, attention, and judgment have all been affected in some way. These symptoms describe which of the following conditions?
- A. Dementia
- B. Mania
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Delirium
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) These changes are common characteristics of dementia. (B) Parkinson's disease affects the muscular system. Progressive memory changes are not presenting symptoms. (C) Delirium includes an altered level of consciousness, which is not found in dementia. (D) Mania includes symptoms of hyperactivity, flight of ideas, and delusions of grandeur.
NEW QUESTION 351
A 78-year-old female client has a total hip arthroplasty. Her nurse should know that which of the following is contraindicated?
- A. Place a trochanter roll along the upper thigh of the affected leg.
- B. Encourage her to cross and uncross her legs.
- C. Check neurological and circulatory status of the affected leg hourly.
- D. Encourage exercises in the unaffected extremities.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) Exercising the unaffected extremities will prevent contractures and emboli. (B) Crossing and uncrossing the affected leg after surgery can dislocate the joint. (C) Neurological and circulatory status of the affected leg has been compromised by surgery. Hourly checks are needed to monitor the status of the leg. (D) A trochanter roll will prevent the upper thigh from rolling outward, increasing the chances of dislocation.
NEW QUESTION 352
A client in active labor asks the nurse for coaching with her breathing during contractions. The client has attended Lamaze birth preparation classes. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
- A. "If a woman in labor listens to her body and takes rapid, deep breaths, she will be able to deal with her contractions quite well."
- B. "Find a comfortable position before you start a contraction. Once the contraction has started, take slow breaths using your abdominal muscles."
- C. "Keep breathing with your abdominal muscles as long as you can."
- D. "Make sure you take a deep cleansing breath as the contractions start, focus on an object, and breathe about 16-20 times a minute with shallow chest breaths."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Lamaze childbirth preparation teaches the use of chest, not abdominal, breathing. (B) In Lamaze preparation, every patterned breath is preceded by a cleansing breath; as labor progresses, shallow, paced breathing is found to be effective. (C) It is important to assume a comfortable position in labor, but the Lamazeprepared laboring woman is taught to breathe with her chest, not abdominal, muscles. (D) When deep chest breathing patterns are used in Lamaze preparation, they are slowly paced at a rate of 6-
9 breaths/min.
NEW QUESTION 353
Chorioamnionitis is a maternal infection that is usually associated with:
- A. Prolonged rupture of membranes
- B. Maternal pyelonephritis
- C. Maternal dehydration
- D. Postterm deliveries
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Chorioamnionitis is an inflammation of the chorion and amnion that is generally associated with premature or prolonged rupture of membranes. (B) Postterm deliveries have not been shown to increase the risk of chorioamnionitis unless there has been prolonged rupture of membranes. (C) Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection that develops in 20%-40% of untreated maternal UTIs. (D) Maternal dehydration, though of great concern, is not related to chorioamnionitis.
NEW QUESTION 354
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Understand the objectives of the NCLEX-RN exam.
The objective of the NCLEX-RN® certification is to test your ability to use critical thinking skills to make nursing judgments. This is a much different type of testing than what you have done in nursing school. Nursing schools test your knowledge of the nursing process. They want to know if you have learned all the nursing terms. On the NCLEX-RN® exam, they want to see if you have learned to apply the nursing knowledge you learned in school to the nursing process. Improvement of knowledge and retention of information on the NCLEX-RN exam is based on how well you answered questions. NCLEX-RN Dumps tests your knowledge and understanding. Aid material helps you learn new concepts and retain information that you learned in school. Knowledge like textbooks are no longer used for this test. It's not enough to memorize the answer to every question.
You must understand the concept behind the question and know the answers to all questions. That is what you are tested on the NCLEX-RN exam. Pool of questions is important because it means that there are questions you have not seen before. Links between topics are also important. Questions in one topic might be related to questions in another topic. Training your brain to recognize this can help you identify those questions and prepare for them. Exam cram is not as important as knowing what to study for. You must know the content of the exam.
To be licensed as a registered nurse in the United States, you must meet the following requirements:
Have been registered to practice as an entry-level nurse.
Be in good health.
Have passed the NCLEX exam.
Be a citizen of the U.S.
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